If you rebill an invoice, the new sales invoice will be created as the default currency of the client you rebill to. However, I have noticed something here which I’m going to query with our development team relating to the exchange rate.
So for example, if you rebill a EUR invoice to a client with GBP as the default currency, this is converted to the GBP equivalent using the purchase invoices exchange rate.
With any non-GBP invoice that’s being paid in GBP, the only way to allocate a payment to it, is to do it from the invoice using the “Log Payment” button. If the currency is the same, you can tag it from the bank account directly.
If it’s the other way around (paying a GBP invoice using a non-GBP currency), you would need to use a holding account of some sort to do the conversion to GBP first, and then tag the payment. Or the other option would be to invoice in the same currency as the payment.
So to answer your two points:
- If you rebill the GBP purchase invoices to a EUR sales invoice, it will assume the GBP value (a straight 1-to-1 conversion). It’s not currently possible to rebill both time and item lines, but we can consider this for future development
- As per the explanation above, you would need to transfer the EUR to a holding account, or convert the invoice to EUR.
Does that make sense?