I use flat rate VAT accounting. When I run a prelim VAT return for Q2 - everything is correct. But I had one sale to a client based in Grenada with 0 VAT. However this is also being picked up and calculated in the VAT due. Is this correct? or do I need to do some form of adjustment to account for this not being included as a % of gross vatable turnover for the flat rate scheme?
If yes, how do I do this?
I also had to refund a client I accidentally charged for VAT - which is fine and agree it adjusts the vatable turnover as I would have paid this across last period (i.e. it reduces by that amount.