When a client pays an invoice, my assistant receives a text message and immediately creates a manual payment to keep my accounts up to date.
From time to time I import a statement from the bank, which contains the same payments. Tagging those payments as belonging to the client creates virtual credit. Leaving them untagged creates a mess.
- Should I just delete the imported bank statement lines for payments
that have already been applied manually?
- Or maybe I should rather delete manual payments after I have imported the bank statement?
What’s the best practice here?
I don’t think there is a ‘best practice’ in this case. As long as all the balances are correct, and the dates are correct then it shouldn’t make a difference.
Personally, I would delete the original payment and retag the new one. Although, generally I don’t mark anything as paid until the money hits my bank - just to make sure it’s mine first
Actually, the text message comes from the bank.
As long as the date isn’t in a different VAT or accounting period, I can’t see it making much difference anyway - but then, I’m not an accountant. Although surely the date your bank texts you is the date it appears on your bank statement, so it wouldn’t make a difference as to which one you deleted, as long as it balances and is correct
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