How do I unallocate payments to a client account as my client is showing that they have a credit when no money is due as the credits are my fees?
If you view the client and click on the prepayment itself it will show you all the payments that are part of it. I think it would just be a case of either linking them with an invoice or removing them somehow. I’m guessing you would have to link it to an invoice when you invoice your client for your fees.
But how do you link an prepayment to an invoice?
How do I attach payment £424.90 to invoice 52 please? It’s unallocated at the moment and I can’t see how to link it?
Here’s the screenshot - it’s actually invoice 70 for that payment and it gives me the option of using the prepayment credit?
However when I allocate it I don’t think it treats it as the same payment as the other 2 invoices , does that matter??
It doesn’t work when I try that as it says the payment total is £500 when it is not?
I’ll detach it again and wait your response.
In your screenshot, you can tick the box in the yellow box that says “Apply from credit”. This will allocate the payment to the invoice from your prepayments for that client.
I’m not sure where you’re seeing this, as I can’t see it in the screenshot. Is it on this screen or a different one?
“Apply from credit” will always start from the earliest unallocated payment and work forwards - if you have a payment of £500 dated 1st March and one of £424.90 dated 5th March and you “apply from credit” it will use £424.90 out of the £500 payment to pay down this invoice, leaving that payment saying £75.10 remains unallocated, and the £424.90 payment will be untouched.
The total remaining credit for the client is still £500 but QuickFile doesn’t let you choose which unallocated payment to assign to which invoice. This has been flagged by other users as a problem before. If the £424.90 is a true pre-payment (a payment received from the customer but not yet allocated, as opposed to a credit note derived from a previously paid invoice) then a workaround for my example above would be to find the bank transaction that corresponds to the £424.90 unallocated payment, untag it to delete the unallocated payment entirely, then re-tag it and assign it to the unpaid invoice as part of the tagging process. But if the unallocated funds derive from a credit note then I don’t think there’s any way to force a specific allocation other than oldest credit first.
Thank you for your email. I had luckily realised the £500 needed allocating first and raised an invoice for it. After that Steve helped me allocate the £424.90 amount and resolve my invoice allocations.
After a mini nervous breakdown and incorrect voicemail to my client saying she’d made an incorrect payment of £424.90 and that I needed to refund her followed by email realising I’d put an incorrect entry of payment from her and an email to say ignore my last voicemail to the client, I managed to get it right! Not great when I have a large invoice for my work that needs paying!
It would be good to at least have a comment pop up to explain oldest entries will always be used first when you are trying to allocate a payment from credit even if the software isn’t “fixed”.
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